Tom Wylie#
L. Scott Johnson <sjohnson@math.scarolina.edu> wrote:
>>If you use a titled vampire's votes, then both you and the vampire are
>> considered to be casting them. For example, using the votes of an untapped
>> prince to vote against something backed by Scorn of Adonis would result
>> both in the prince becoming tapped, and in losing a pool.
>Why is the prince tapped? The card (Adonis) says nothing about the voting
>kindred.
Eep. It should say "backed by both Scorn of Adonis and Disarming Presence."
>>Second Tradition - Domain:
>> Only usable by a tapped Prince or Justicar. This vampire untaps and
>> attempts to block at +2 intercept.
>What is the reasoning behind this? The card says nothing about not being used
>by an untapped vampire, and there is no explanation for giving a tapped
>vampire +2 intercept when the same vampire, untapped, cannot receive the
>bonus.
"Usable by a tapped vampire" is an absolute. If the vampire is untapped,
it may not use Domain. Besides, you can't untap something which is
already untapped.
>The "usable by a tapped vampire that untaps" should be an option, as written.
>It shouldn't be errata'ed against logic into an exclusion.
The whole card needs "oof, that was ugly" errata ;)
Tom Wylie rec.games.deckmaster Network Representative for
aahz@hal.com Wizards of the Coast, Inc.